These two verses are being highlighted to try to explain the basics of how prayer Actually works.
From this we will see how here is no ‘trinity’ implied in the verses, by explaining two main facts, which briefly are;
A) Do we ask Christ for things in prayer?
No. The correct translation for these two verses in this instance is the KJV, which does not instruct any such thing.
B) What does it mean when it says Christ ‘will do it’ in both verses?
After we read John 14:16 with our two subject verses, we see that one of Christ’s duties is to pray to the Father – and this is consistent with other verses such as Isaiah 53:12 and Romans 8:34 which both state Christ ‘intercedes’ for people to G-d.
This is what Christ does as high priest in the order of Melchizadek (Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:10);
A person prays to G-d in Christ’s name (in honor/recognition of), and then Christ intercedes on our behalf with G-d.
This explanation aims to show how God’s good commandments forbid human sacrifices (ref. Deuteronomy 24:16, Ezekiel 18:20), and thus 1 John 2:1-2 (or any other similar verse for that matter) is in no way saying that Christ (Messiah) was a literal human sacrifice for our sins.
Instead, with verse 1 first telling us that Christ is our ‘advocate’, the word typically translated as ‘propitiation’ in 1 John 2:2 is then reviewed.
We see that the English dictionary’s definition for ‘propitiation’ can be defined as ‘appeasing’, and in phrase form can be described as how ‘Christ lifts his hands in prayer to God as our representation in a propitiation-like, priestly manner, to please Him on our behalf.’.
We will see that this is the better rendering and translation of what the word ‘propitiation’ means in this instance, as other verses confirm Christ appeases G-d, by praying (interceding) for us here (Isaiah 53:12, Romans 8:34), as advocate and mediator (1 John 2:1, 1 Timothy 2:5).