The name of the Messiah (Christ) – the created, righteous Son of G-d, has appeared in and has reportadly been translated back and forth through several languages – such as Hebrew, Greek, Latin, and back to Greek.
This explanation shares the variants, language rescource(s) and even variants to the names of other men that appear in the Bible.
Here we will see that in no place does the well read passage of Matthew 5:17-18 abolish or cancel Torah Law (the law of Moses).
Instead, we will learn that the things that these verses actually speak of are as follows;
A) Christ was not sent to cancel the Law of Moses, but rather observe (fulfil) G-d’s commandments in his own walk.
B) when it says ‘…not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished.’ (ESV), this means no laws are cancelled as per the previous verse – however the ‘new covenant’ was put in place at his death and resurrection – and this means believers are under the new covenant, not the old.
You are most welcome to read on for more detailed information with references.
A stumbling block with some, is the thought that ‘because Jesus has no biological human father, he therefore cannot be a descendant of king David and king Solomon – as the Scriptures say G-d instead performed a miracle, and Mary became pregnant.’
Here, how King Jesus (Yehoshua/Yeshua) is to be counted as a descendant through both king David and king Solomon, is shared.
What we will find is that despite both of the human parents of the Messiah (Christ) both coming through king David, and one also through king Solomon – the books of the Prophets and the Writings are consistently poetic, figurative, and spiritual in nature, therefore they must be interpreted accordingly;
The non-biological human father of the Messiah (Christ), is therefore the key marker to identifying the Messiah (Christ)- along with the marital link between both parents (Joseph and Mary).
With King Yehoshua (Jesus) having been physically born of Mary; Christ is inturn deemed a Jew.
With Christ (Messiah) being Joseph’s son by way of his mother and he marrying; this is where the poetic and figurative link to the prophets and the writings that speak of Messiah is made.
Messiah As Priest, No World Peace Here, Messiah Rules From Above, Levite Priests?
Here a neat table of contents is addressed, and various topics addressed – which ideally allow for better understanding and grasp.
■ The Priesthood Of Melchizadek Is Recognized By God:
■ Messiah (Christ) Was Sent Here To Become A Priest In The Order Of Melchizadek.
■ What Does This Then Mean For The Levitical Priesthood – Is It Abolished And No More?
■ What is The Need Of A High Priest In The Order Of Melchizadek?
■ No Holy ‘World Peace’ Here Amongst Men, Rather It Is Between The Holy God and Mankind:
■ Messiah Rules From Above, Right Now In The New Heaven And Earth
The aim of this explanation of Holy Scripture is to peaceably share how in no place does it, or any other Scripture allow for human sacrifice – rather, the verse uses the word ‘ransom’ in a unique way, as the Law of Moses and the rest of Holy Scripture forbids human sacrifice (Deuteronomy 24:16, Jeremiah 31:30, Ezekiel 18:20 etc.).
Instead, when the verse says ‘ransom’, it speaks of the Messiah’s (Christ’s) personal walk and obedience until death – to fulfil prophecy spoken of himself, and be declared High Priest in the order of Melchizadek forever to then intercede for the sins of many (Psalm 110:4, 45:7, Isaiah 53:11-12).
The aim of this explanation is to further interpret verses which speak of either Christ’s death and ressurection, or his blood – as they are; poetic and meorphical in a certain way, especially if they read along the lines of ‘sacrifice’ or ‘makes us clean’.
This explanation of Holy Scripture further demonstrates the connection between Christ in the Psalm where it says he ‘…you love righteousness and hate wickedness…’, and how he was then ‘annointed’ as high ‘…priest forever in the order of Melchizadek…’ – after being raised from the dead (ref. Psalm 45:7, 110:4, Hebrews 5:10).
This explanation aims to show how God’s good commandments forbid human sacrifices (ref. Deuteronomy 24:16, Ezekiel 18:20), and thus 1 John 2:1-2 (or any other similar verse for that matter) is in no way saying that Christ (Messiah) was a literal human sacrifice for our sins.
Instead, with verse 1 first telling us that Christ is our ‘advocate’, the word typically translated as ‘propitiation’ in 1 John 2:2 is then reviewed.
We see that the English dictionary’s definition for ‘propitiation’ can be defined as ‘appeasing’, and in phrase form can be described as how ‘Christ lifts his hands in prayer to God as our representation in a propitiation-like, priestly manner, to please Him on our behalf.’.
We will see that this is the better rendering and translation of what the word ‘propitiation’ means in this instance, as other verses confirm Christ appeases G-d, by praying (interceding) for us here (Isaiah 53:12, Romans 8:34), as advocate and mediator (1 John 2:1, 1 Timothy 2:5).
Sharing how to explain the riddle of Isaiah 49:3 and 49:5, and how this is a key to confirming the suffering ‘righteous servant’ of Isaiah 53 is one man, the created, risen, Lord Jesus Christ (Adonai Yehoshua the Messiah), and not a nation.
The purpose of this explanation of Holy Scripture is to explain why the Lord Jesus (Yehoshua) Christ was baptized by John the Baptist in water.
Essentially the main reasons were;
A) to be identified and made known as the Messiah before John the Baptist and the people of Israel.
B) to obey the prophet of the LORD (John the Baptist) and recieve an instructed baptism in water that the people of Israel were to undertake out of obedience.
Baptism is another word for immersion (tevilah), which has essentially always been the way that the Law of Moses instructs a person to cleanse themselves.
John began instructing the Israelites to be baptised in an act of repentance and obedience to G-d.
This explanation is submitted out of love, and a primary reason for it being shared is due to an inaccurate interpretation of Scripture that some may currently and sadly hold – which when paraphrased, is along the lines of ‘Christ needed baptism by John for forgiveness…’.
Here we will see why such an assertion is not Scripturally true at all, and that the risen Lord Jesus Christ has always literally been without sin.
Showing how Matthew 27:46 indeed references the beginning of Psalm 22:1
‘…”My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”…’
(Psalm 22:1 NIV)
– however the recitation of the Psalm stops there, and the actual context of what is being communicated is found in Isaiah 49:4
‘…“I have labored in vain;… yet surely my right is with the LORD, and my recompense with my God.”’
(Isaiah 49:4 ESV)
– As only part of the people believed, Isaiah says ‘…laboured in vain…’ (ESV), and this communicates how Christ yearns for all people to be saved, and not just some – much like His Father’s will (1 Timothy 2:3-4, 2 Peter 3:9).
Isaiah also shows us how Christ (Messiah) also looked forward to being at the right hand of G-d above, again.