Exodus 21:7-11 provides instruction with regard to a father selling his daughter to another Israelite to be a slave/servant, with a view to marriage.
Ultimately from reviewing this commandment and the fuller scope of Holy Scripture that will accompany it, we will find that;
a) The Law of Moses is to be observed, however,
b) Halakhah (Jewish Law: oral and the written) states that Jews/Israelites are to abide by local laws in general, and this mixed place typically forbids multiple wives (poligomy), which this passage lightly touches upon.
c) Holy Scripture encourages believers to be content with one wife (1 Timothy 3:2).
d) Divine halakhah states divorce is only acceptable in the event of sexual immorality (Matthew 5:31-32).
e) The Tanakh (Old Testament) and New Testemant (Brit Chadasha) are thus in agreement.
The name of the Messiah (Christ) – the created, righteous Son of G-d, has appeared in and has reportadly been translated back and forth through several languages – such as Hebrew, Greek, Latin, and back to Greek.
This explanation shares the variants, language rescource(s) and even variants to the names of other men that appear in the Bible.
The purpose of this explanation is to demonstrate the context of what Deuteronomy 6:4 means when it says ‘…the LORD is one.’.
Some feel that the Hebrew word (echad) that is translated as ‘one’ can also mean ‘united’, and thus they will mistakenly try to associate this with the man-made incorrect 3-in-1 doctrine known as the ‘trinity’.
What we do find is that Scripture answers Scripture here, with regard to the context of Deuteronomy 6:4 – as it is clarified in Mark 12:32; ‘…there is no other.’
An interesting current day extrabiblical reference will also be shared, which agrees with the fuller scope of Holy Scripture in this instance.
Branching from the Torah statute found in Deuteronomy 18:15-19 which instructs us to listen (and in turn do) what G-d’s prophets instruct or they will be punished, here is the formula for proving that the Messiah is Christ;
Here we will see that in no place does the well read passage of Matthew 5:17-18 abolish or cancel Torah Law (the law of Moses).
Instead, we will learn that the things that these verses actually speak of are as follows;
A) Christ was not sent to cancel the Law of Moses, but rather observe (fulfil) G-d’s commandments in his own walk.
B) when it says ‘…not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished.’ (ESV), this means no laws are cancelled as per the previous verse – however the ‘new covenant’ was put in place at his death and resurrection – and this means believers are under the new covenant, not the old.
You are most welcome to read on for more detailed information with references.
The aim of this explanation is to more clearly translate Hebrews 5:9 in order to demonstrate that Christ has always been sinless, and thus did not need to be made ‘perfect’.
To some the more popular translations may be communicating contrary to this.
This will also assist in better understanding the next verse, as it is chronological and in agreement with Isaiah 42:6, and 49:8 – in that after Christ finished here (died, and was raised from the dead = ‘given’), he became high priest in the order of Melchizadek (Psalm 45:7, 110:4), for the new covenant (Jeremiah 31:31).
The purpose of this explanation of Holy Scripture is to show how Galatians 3:19 in no place abolishes the law of Moses (Torah), rather, it speaks of how it was put in place so mankind can know right from wrong, until the Messiah (Christ) arrived and everlasting life (the ‘promise’) would be made available to all who believe – by way of the new covenant (Isaiah 42:6, 49:8, Jeremiah 31:31)
With this faith, a believer is instructed to learn and inturn observe the Law of Moses (ref. Romans 3:31 ESV).
Here we will see that lighting a fire on the Sabbath is a forbidden activity, and with this the scribes and Pharisees explain that starting a car engine is also listed as a forbidden activity on the Sabbath as it involves sparks, the ignition and burning of fuel – even the boiling of water.
Solutions are peaceably submitted, along with Scripture references.
With the written clean and unclean food laws which are found in places such as Leviticus 11, there are services such as the Orthodox Union, Kosher Australia, and Kashrut Australia which can assist in recommendations on acceptable food and drink items.
Kashrut Australia (www.ka.org.au) is given mention, for its expansive food directory, as a reference tool in your quiver.
These two verses are being highlighted to try to explain the basics of how prayer Actually works.
From this we will see how here is no ‘trinity’ implied in the verses, by explaining two main facts, which briefly are;
A) Do we ask Christ for things in prayer?
No. The correct translation for these two verses in this instance is the KJV, which does not instruct any such thing.
B) What does it mean when it says Christ ‘will do it’ in both verses?
After we read John 14:16 with our two subject verses, we see that one of Christ’s duties is to pray to the Father – and this is consistent with other verses such as Isaiah 53:12 and Romans 8:34 which both state Christ ‘intercedes’ for people to G-d.
This is what Christ does as high priest in the order of Melchizadek (Psalm 110:4, Hebrews 5:10);
A person prays to G-d in Christ’s name (in honor/recognition of), and then Christ intercedes on our behalf with G-d.
The Old Testament spoke of newness which could be had by believing the New – by believing in Messiah (Christ) who was given [as high priest in the order of Melchizadek (Psalm 110:4, 45:7)] for the [mediating (1 Timothy 2:5)] of the New covenant (Isaiah 42:6, 49:8, 2 Corinthians 5:17).
This article simply aims to list some of the blessings which are found in the New Covenant – one of the major blessings being everlasting life without end at resurrection.
A stumbling block with some, is the thought that ‘because Jesus has no biological human father, he therefore cannot be a descendant of king David and king Solomon – as the Scriptures say G-d instead performed a miracle, and Mary became pregnant.’
Here, how King Jesus (Yehoshua/Yeshua) is to be counted as a descendant through both king David and king Solomon, is shared.
What we will find is that despite both of the parents of the Messiah (Christ) both coming through king David, and one also through king Solomon – the books of the Prophets and the Writings are consistently poetic, figurative, and spiritual in nature, therefore they must be interpreted accordingly;
The non-biological human father of the Messiah (Christ), is the key marker to identifying the Messiah – along with the marital link between both parents (Joseph and Mary).
With King Yehoshua (Jesus) having been physically born of Mary; Christ is inturn deemed Joseph’s son by marriage, and this is where the poetic and figurative link to the prophets and the writings is made.
Some Torah Law will also be lightly shared with regard to marriage – and how a women adopts her husband’s tribal status at marriage.
Some may currently and mistakenly feel that ‘Ephesians 2:15 says that some parts of the law of Moses have been cancelled…’;
by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,
Ephesians 2:15 ESV
Politely, Ephesians 2:15 does not speak of this at all, and this explanation of the verse will show how it refers to how both Jews and Gentiles who believe in Christ (Messiah), are now united as one, and thus they are no longer forbidden to assosiate with each other, but allowed.
According to Holy Scripture, association (e.g. living/dining) between a Jew and an unbelieving Gentile is strictly forbidden, in a peaceful and polite way (Acts 10:28, 11:2-4, Proverbs 27:17).
Deuteronomy 30:11, can be quite hard to understand when read in many English translations on this occaision.
The purpose of this explanation is to show that observing all commandments on this fallen earth, is actually very hard (Acts 15:10), especially without sinning; Thus any translation which states it is ‘…not too hard for you…’, might not be best communicating the meaning of the verse.
Rosh Hashanah: How The Seventh Month, And Not The First – Is The New Year.
The aim of this explanation is to share how Rosh Hashanah (The Feast of Trumpets – ref. Leviticus 23:24), which takes place on the first day of the seventh month (Tishrei) on the Hebrew calandar, is actually the beginning of the new year – despite Nisan (Abib) being described as the beginning of the year in Exodus 12:2.
The contextual explanation for Nisan being that Nisan it is the first of months from the beginning of your exodus.
This simple explanation of Holy Scripture, aims to show how the apostle Paul baptized new believers in water, just as faithful Peter did – and that there are no istructions to not baptize new believers post the resurrection of Christ (Messiah).
The following explanation is intended to share how Hebrews 8:13 in no way says that a believer in Christ (Messiah) no longer observes the law of Moses.
Rather, in context we will see that it speaks of something else, in that a believer is nolonger destined for judgement under the old covenant and liable to eventually perish (Isaiah 28:22).
Instead, a believer is under the new covenant (Jeremiah 31:31, Isaiah 42:6, 49:8) which comes with saving grace (Psalm 110:4, Isaiah 53:11-12), and ultimately means everlasting life without end at ressurection (Isaiah 28:16, 28:18, 53:11-12).
With this faith, a believer observes the Law of Moses (Torah);
Do we then overthrow the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law.
Romans 3:31 ESV
This explanation aims to show that when the angel of the LORD says such things as ‘I am… God’ (Gen 31:11, 31:13) – that such is simply forwarding the words of God, and not a claim that the angel is making for itself.
We have already learned that the angel of the LORD is not necessarily the same being (e.g. is not Christ) in every instance that it is mentioned – from the article which explains that the angel of the LORD in Luke 2:9, 2:11 cannot be Christ as it was informing men on earth that Christ had just been born. That article can be read here.
These will ideally assist a person grasp the word better, and also understand that the mistaken man-made doctrine known as the ‘trinity’ does not agree with Holy Scripture.
Messiah As Priest, No World Peace Here, Messiah Rules From Above, Levite Priests?
Here a neat table of contents is addressed, and various topics addressed – which ideally allow for better understanding and grasp.
■ The Priesthood Of Melchizadek Is Recognized By God:
■ Messiah (Christ) Was Sent Here To Become A Priest In The Order Of Melchizadek.
■ What Does This Then Mean For The Levitical Priesthood – Is It Abolished And No More?
■ What is The Need Of A High Priest In The Order Of Melchizadek?
■ No Holy ‘World Peace’ Here Amongst Men, Rather It Is Between The Holy God and Mankind:
■ Messiah Rules From Above, Right Now In The New Heaven And Earth
Here, Hebrews 7:27 is explained in it’s correct context to show how it does not speak of human sacrifice (e.g. the crucifixion and ressurection), as human sacrifice is forbidden by the Holy G-d. The actual meaning of the verse is inturn shared, and we will see this in a moment;
The aim of this explanation of Holy Scripture is to peaceably share how in no place does it, or any other Scripture allow for human sacrifice – rather, the verse uses the word ‘ransom’ in a unique way as the Law of Moses and the rest of Holy Scripture forbid human sacrifice (Deuteronomy 24:16, Jeremiah 31:30, Ezekiel 18:20 etc.).
If A Person Is Not Born Again Here, Now – Can They Be ‘Born Again’ In Heaven After Death, Later?
In summary, from Scripture we find that the answer is no, however there is great benefit if a person continues to ‘knock at the door’, believing the gospel and turning to G-d – by doing His commandments, with their repentance and baptism (immursion) in water (ref. Matthew 5:6, Romans 3:28, 3:31).
Romans 7 is also touched upon with Isaiah 28, Ephesians 6:12 – with regards to sin and a spiritual phenomenon referred to as the ‘overwhelming scourge’.
This explanation aims to show that ‘the angel of the LORD’, is not necessarily the same angel in every instance. Such would inturn mean that the incorrect man made doctrine known as the ‘trinity’ – which typically counts every instance of ‘angel of the LORD’ (especially in the Old Testament) as being a reference for it meaning it is Christ appearing – as incorrect.
This explanation of Holy Scripture aims to briefly, and peaceably share some commandments in a concise manner. The commandments and customs which will be explained and shared are the mezuzah, tefillin (phylacteries), tzitzit (fringes), talit gadol, prayer siddurs (books). Scripture is referenced and discussed along the way.
The aim of this explanation is to further interpret verses which speak of either Christ’s death and ressurection, or his blood – as they are; poetic and meorphical in a certain way, especially if they read along the lines of ‘sacrifice’ or ‘makes us clean’.
This explanation of Holy Scripture intends to share exactly what the miraculous gift of tongues was; a gift the original early believers were gifted with, to allow the sharing of the gospel with people who spoke foreign languages.
We will see that this outward spiritual gift along with others such as healing the sick, and prophecy have ceased as per 1 Corinthians 13:8, since Mark 13:24 and John 9:4 were fulfilled – where it says ‘…the moon will not give it’s light.’, meaning; ‘…G-d will not give His Holy Spirit for the purposes of outward miracles.’. (ESV), and ‘…Night is coming, when no one can work.’ (NIV).
This explanation defines the difference between being ‘under the law’ as an unbeliever, and ‘upholding the law’ as a believer – as a believer in Messiah (Christ) is instructed to observe the Law of Moses with their faith (Romans 3:31 ESV).
Peaceably, this explanation is shared as many ‘mainstream’ Christians here may mistakenly see such the concept of law observance, as legalistic.
This explanation of Holy Scripture further demonstrates the connection between Christ in the Psalm where it says he ‘…you love righteousness and hate wickedness…’, and how he was then ‘annointed’ as high ‘…priest forever in the order of Melchizadek…’ – after being raised from the dead (ref. Psalm 45:7, 110:4, Hebrews 5:10).
■ Proverbs Confirming Christ Was Created, New Testament Confirming His ‘Nickname’ As ‘Wisdom’.
(Proverbs 8:12, 8:22 NASB, Luke 7:35, Matthew 11:19)
■ Everlasting Life By Believing In Wisdom (Christ)
(With the above; Proverbs 8:35, Isaiah 28:16, Ephesians 2:20, John 3:16 KJV)
■ Christ As Wisdom, And Was There At The Beginning Of The Rest Of Creation (Proverbs 8:12, 8:21-22 NASB, 8:24-29, 8:35 ESV)
■ Isaiah Writes The Words of Christ Speaking; How He Was There At The Beginning Even In Genesis 1:26 – However, With The Other Dot Points Here And Commentary; This Does Not Mean The ‘Trinity’ Is Real.
(Isaiah 48:16, with the above and Genesis 1:16)
The purpose of this explanation is to show the context of Q5:51 of the Quran – for the sake of clarity on how it is not referring to ‘genuine born again Christians or zealous Jews who do not willfully sin etc.’.
Believing in Christ and observance of the Torah are also promoted, along with a reminder to abstain from any texts that take away from faith in God and Christ, and your observance of the Law of Moses – as if we do not move forward, all we do is go around in a circle.
The purpose of this explanation is to show that people of all different cultures/nations believe the Gospel, and that they also are instructed to observe the Law of Moses with their faith (Romans 3:31 ESV).
This article is primarily written for those who may currently be of the Muslim faith, as it demonstrates how a verse (sura) from the Quran is not in agreement with Holy Scripture.
Explaining how the ‘overwhelming scourge’ phenomenon mentioned in Isaiah 28:16, 28:18 is deeply linked with the ‘…evil I do not want is what I keep on doing…. it is sin living in me that does it…’ of Romans 7:19-20 ESV – in that it is those worldly people who wield spiritual wickedness of Ephesians 6:12, that are sinning and not a believer.
Here, some very popular questions dear Muslims may have, are responded to in a peaceable way – all in hope that the responses might be helpful to you.
Table Of Contents;
■ Popular Question:
Do you think the Quran is true?
The 3-in-1 ‘trinity’:
The Quran says that there is no such thing as the ‘trinity’ – is this a good thing?
The Quran says ‘that G-d does not have a Son…’ – what does that mean?
Does the Quran really say that they did not really kill Jesus at the crucifixion?
■ Popular Question;
The Bible says ‘…here are two swords…It is enough…’ – Is this allowing violence?
■ Popular Question;
Is Muhammad a real prophet from G-d?
Circumcision, the Quran, and the Bible
The Sabbath, the Quran, and the Bible
■ Popular Questions:
Why not have ‘Ishmael’ in the title, when speaking of ‘the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob…’?
And why should we seek to do the commandments given to Moses for Israel
(The Ten Commandments and the rest)
– as we believe in God, and also in Jesus?
Is it necessary then to even read the Quran?
The purpose of this explanation, is to show how the New Testament (Brit Chadasha) was written in languages native to ancient Israel, and also Greek.
We know this as the annointed holy Jews who penned the New Testament, such as the apostle Paul, were multi-lingual and had to communicate with people of different languages – both verbally (Acts 17:22) and also with written letters and manuscripts (Galatians 6:11), outside of Israel.
This explanation aims to share Isaiah 42:6, 49:8, two fantastic verses which show us that the servant whom G-d sent is one man (Messiah/Christ) and therefore not a nation (many people).
These verses both state Messiah was ‘given’ as/for a [new] ‘covenant’ (ref. Jeremiah 31:31) for the many – in the sense that he is the High Priest in the order of Melchizadek (Psalm 110:4, 45:7) for the new covenant.
This explanation aims to show how God’s good commandments forbid human sacrifices (ref. Deuteronomy 24:16, Ezekiel 18:20), and thus 1 John 2:1-2 (or any other similar verse for that matter) is in no way saying that Christ (Messiah) was a literal human sacrifice for our sins.
Instead, with verse 1 first telling us that Christ is our ‘advocate’, the word typically translated as ‘propitiation’ in 1 John 2:2 is then reviewed.
We see that the English dictionary’s definition for ‘propitiation’ can be defined as ‘appeasing’, and in phrase form can be described as how ‘Christ lifts his hands in prayer to God as our representation in a propitiation-like, priestly manner, to please Him on our behalf.’.
We will see that this is the better rendering and translation of what the word ‘propitiation’ means in this instance, as other verses confirm Christ appeases G-d, by praying (interceding) for us here (Isaiah 53:12, Romans 8:34), as advocate and mediator (1 John 2:1, 1 Timothy 2:5).
This explanation of Holy Scripture will show you that the apostle Paul encourages/instructs both Jewish and Gentile believers in Messiah (Christ), to observe the Law of Moses (Torah).
This will be achieved by showing you that the apostle Paul brought and or met with believers who were originally born as Greeks into the temple of G-d to do a commandment (ritual) known as the Nazirite vow, a cleansing statute from the Law of Moses.
From this we also see that both Jews and Gentiles who believe in Messiah (Christ), are deemed Israelites – as the penalty for bringing a non-Jew into the Temple was death in ancient times.
Sharing how Galatians 4:9-11 is communicating that a believer is instructed to observe the Sabbath and the Biblical Feast days etc..
The passage is therefore not communicating that believers should abolish the observance of these commandments and statutes, but they should instead approach them correctly;
A believer is justified (saved) by believing in G-d and Christ (Isaiah 50:10, John 14:1, Isaiah 28:16, 28:18), and with this faith they observe these days, months, seasons, and years – believing for saving grace the whole time (Acts 15:11, Isaiah 53:11-12), and not neglecting the need for such grace.
With this correct mind set, a believer is thus not relying on their deeds, whilst neglecting their faith for salvation; they are therefore not seeking to be ‘under the law’.
Being ‘under the law’ means a person is neglecting their believing in Christ for saving grace at resurrection (Acts 15:11, Isaiah 53:11-12), and thus they instead are sadly deemed to be seeking to become ‘slaves’ of men who rule the masses here in fallen religion (Gal 4:9, 4:21) – men who do not recognise the vital importance of believing in Christ for everlasting life as Holy Scripture instructs (Isaiah 28:16, 28:18, Ephesians 2:20).
Sharing a video explanation of how Isaiah 9:6 does not speak of the incorrect man-made doctrine known as the ‘trinity’. Further, a published Hebrew contextual translation of the verse is also shared – it to, demonstrates no reference to the ‘trinity’. Shalom and kind regards.
The aim of this explanation of Holy Scripture is to share the interpretation and translation of 1 Corinthians 7:1 and how it speaks of the instruction to ‘not touch the opposite gender, except for your spouse, or certain close relatives…’.
Such a practice can be deduced from both the Old and New Testaments, and also in both ancient and current Judaism as well.
For reference, the practice to not ‘touch’ the opposite gender is known as Negiah, and is defined to an extent for reference in the halakhah (the oral and written torah law combined).
Further, linguistic sightings for the same ancient Greek word rendered ‘touch’ from 1 Corinthians 7:1, will be shown in other verses found in the New Testament from a wide range of translations, to show consistency in how ‘touch’ is the legal and valid translation – despite many other translations not following suite in this particular instance.
1 Corinthians 7:17-24 is a complex passage which uses ‘circumcision’ as a metaphor for matters pertaining to relationships.
The end result will ideally show a person that in no place has the commandment of circumcision been abolished.
This explanation will also show how 1 Corinthians 7:17-24 is instead essentially instructing believers to remain in the same relationship state/status that they were in at the time that they first believed, repented, and were saved.
Infact the entire chapter of 1 Corinthians 7 deals with relationship related matters.
For example, if you were single at the time of believing, the passage instructs you to stay single – unless you burn with desire (for intimacy etc.), then you should seek marriage to avoid immorality (inc. even self stimulation), instead (ref. Matthew 5:27-30).
As the passage concludes it encourages all believers, by saying the married will do well, and the single will do even better – distractions, obligations, and cares being sighted, as the married need to tend to their relationship as well as their faithful walk and observance.
The explanation for this section of Holy Scripture will be shared in a verse-by-verse style format to assist in providing correct context.
Here Acts 15:1 will be explained to show how believers are deemed ‘saved’ before they are circumcised, and that the verse in no way abolishes the commandment of circumcision.
At the time, some dear zealous Pharisees who believed that Christ was Messiah, sadly incorrectly still thought it was the circumcision which meant a person was ‘saved’ and resulted in the conversion of a person.
For reference, even still today conversion in traditional Judaism (those who do not yet believe in Messiah), takes place after the circumcision.
With this, believers are further instructed not to force other believers to be circumcised. They will however, naturally seek and desire to be circumcised as they come to the knowledge of the commandment – as this means they are trying to uphold the Law of Moses with their faith.
Showing how Timothy the faithful disciple originally lived with his mother who was a Jew and a believer, and with his father who was a Greek though not a believer at the time.
Because Timothy’s dad was both a Greek and a non-believing person at the time; Timothy was not yet circumcised, however, such is highly uncommon practice for grown children in Judaic – let alone believing families.
When presented with the opportunity, Timothy got circumcised and inturn practiced what he preached, even while assisting the apostle Paul share the gospel.
Showing how Galatians 5:11 shows us how the apostle Paul preached the commandment of circumcision, however, some observant people who did not believe in Messiah (Christ) were offended and persecuted him – as he preached faith (the ‘cross’) first and foremost for complete justification and everlasting life.
With this faith a person gets circumcised – on the understanding that it is the faith that saves, and not the circumcision, though the circumcision is a commandment and if a believer is not circumcised, they are living in a sinful state (Colossians 2:13, Romans 6:1-3).
Showing how in no place does Galatians 5:2 say that the commandment of circumcision has been abolished.
Rather, in verse 4 context is given and when read together, the passage is speaking to a group of people who were perhaps incorrectly thinking they would be saved once and only after they got their circumcision (‘under the law’).
This is what it means in Galatians 5:2 by ‘…if you accept circumcision…’ (ESV).
A believer however understands that they are saved upon believing in G-d and I Christ (Messiah) (Romans 3:28, John 14:1, Isaiah 50:10), and that with this faith they observe the Law of Moses (Rom 3:31 ESV) – they get circumcised on this belief.
Showing how Galatians 3:24 is speaking of how the Law of Moses schooled mankind as to what right and wrong is, and led up to Christ (Messiah), where one can be justified and accounted completely righteous by faith (Isaiah 53:11 ‘my righteous servant will justify many…’ (NIV)), and also be blessed with everlasting life (Isaiah 28:16, Ephesians 2:20, John 3:14-16), instead of perishing (Isaiah 28:22).
Showing how Romans 10:4 is communicating that superior righteousness from G-d is received by believing in Christ (Messiah), and that this ultimately means everlasting life without end.
A believer upholds/observes the law of Moses with this faith which allows for said righteousness that is accounted to them from above.
Previously, men would typically rely on their own hand and deeds to be accounted [relatively] righteous e.g. from the time of receiving the Torah from Moses onward – however, this was procedural, deeds based righteousness – not righteousness received by faith.
Further, after Moses, Isaiah prophesied and penned the statute which means everlasting life (Isaiah 28:16).
It is in the New Covenant that a believer will be accounted completely righteous by believing in Messiah (Christ);
I will make… righteousness the plumb line…’
(Isaiah 28:16-17 NIV)
Here, key instances where the words ‘Israel’ and/or ‘servant’ occur in the book of Isaiah, are explained to assist a person understand whether each verse or passage is speaking of the Messiah (Christ), or the nation of Israel.
Here is the brief, linked summary of the subject verses which are covered here in this article;
Sharing how to explain the riddle of Isaiah 49:3 and 49:5, and how this is a key to confirming the suffering ‘righteous servant’ of Isaiah 53 is one man, the created, risen, Lord Jesus Christ (Adonai Yehoshua the Messiah), and not a nation.
Sharing how the Letter to the Gentiles features four initial things for new believers to to abstain from, as they hear other commandments from the Law of Moses (Torah) on the Sabbath, learn them, and inturn observe them as well.
The four initial items for new believers to initially abstain from, are further explained upon here in a little more detail.
The purpose of this explanation of Holy Scripture is to explain why the Lord Jesus (Yehoshua) Christ was baptized by John the Baptist in water.
Essentially the main reasons were;
A) to be identified and made known as the Messiah before John the Baptist and the people of Israel.
B) to obey the prophet of the LORD (John the Baptist) and recieve an instructed baptism in water that the people of Israel were to undertake out of obedience.
Baptism is another word for immersion (tevilah), which has essentially always been the way that the Law of Moses instructs a person to cleanse themselves.
John began instructing the Israelites to be baptised in an act of repentance and obedience to G-d.
This explanation is submitted out of love, and a primary reason for it being shared is due to an inaccurate interpretation of Scripture that some may currently and sadly hold – which when paraphrased, is along the lines of ‘Christ needed baptism by John for forgiveness…’.
Here we will see why such an assertion is not Scripturally true at all, and that the risen Lord Jesus Christ has always literally been without sin.
Showing how Colossians 2:14 does not say that the Law of Moses (Torah) has been cancelled, rather it states that for a believer, the record of their sins and the corresponding punishment for each sin – are forgiven.
Showing how Matthew 27:46 indeed references the beginning of Psalm 22:1
‘…”My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”…’
(Psalm 22:1 NIV)
– however the recitation of the Psalm stops there, and the actual context of what is being communicated is found in Isaiah 49:4
‘…“I have labored in vain;… yet surely my right is with the LORD, and my recompense with my God.”’
(Isaiah 49:4 ESV)
– As only part of the people believed, Isaiah says ‘…laboured in vain…’ (ESV), and this communicates how Christ yearns for all people to be saved, and not just some – much like His Father’s will (1 Timothy 2:3-4, 2 Peter 3:9).
Isaiah also shows us how Christ (Mesaiah) also looked forward to being at the right hand of G-d above, again.